Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 02:57
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Magnetic fields appear to be as old as the universe itself. What created them? - Space
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What is the most ridiculous obviously false verse in the Bible?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.